Here is the deal, I have been reading sites, all over the internet, mention that the use of zip codes is voluntary. However I have yet to see any proof. In light of, the seemingly, lack of proof I have put together a little experiment to find out for myself and to show proof for others to see.

This first post shows the little "Package" I put together for the little experiment.

The package includes:
A.) Two self addressed and stamped envelopes. One is addressed to my fiancee in California from myself, sent from Texas. The other is envelope was used to send everything back from California to Texas.

B.) Two small notes: Used to depict the day each package was picked up by a postal worker and the day the package was received.

See the posted picture for any clarification.

For the experiment.

The addresses were written out as normal except:
A) I did not, in my own handwritting, write out any zip codes. In place of the zip code I wrote (Zip Code Exempt DMM § 122.32)

B)I wrote out the name of the state instead of using the abbreviation.
I folded one envelope and put it inside the other along with the two notes.

The little notes when and where appropriate were dated before being put in the mail and after being opend again several days later.

In the picture you will note the family names and house numbers have been edited out for the sake of retaining some privacy. I trust no one will have any quams over my choosing to do so.

My next post will show the results.

(To adminstration and moderators: If this is in the wrong section of the website please move it to the correct section.)

__________________
*As a personal note: I am not trying to be argumentative nor am I trying to steer the topic off subject. I, like many other people, am trying to sort through the mass amount of information that is on the internet for this particular topic. I furthermore recognize the fact that a great deal of people here are not lawyers, attorneys, nor are they attempting to practice law. *